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07/29/2009, 08:27 PM
#763
 Originally Posted by Bujin
Apologies - didn't see that one of the authors was the same. However, what did you use as a basis that John Goodman's analysis was more reliable than Harvard & the American Journal of Medicine? Other than the fact that it agreed with your preconceptions?
1. It's more than just that one author is the same (probably all the authors are the same but that's beside the point). It's that they used the same statistic that their previous study concluded as the baseline. Namely, that 46% of bankruptcies were related to medical debt. That tells me the two studies used similar methodology or els the baseline would be flawed.
2. Unlike CNN, Goodman's article actually linked to the original study. I read it. He was right. First, the Harvard study included variables that were tenuous at best (e.g., included gambling addictions as cause of medical debt, etc). Second, used >$1,000 medical debt over 2 years as the basis to be considered a medical-debt related bankruptcy. So, as one of the study's critics wrote, a person with $50,000 of student loans and $1001 in medical debt would be identified by the study as medical-debt related bankruptcy.
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